PRMIA 8010 Exam - Topic 4 Question 80 Discussion

Actual exam question for PRMIA's 8010 exam

Question #: 80
Topic #: 4

Under the actuarial (or CreditRisk+) based modeling of defaults, what is the probability of 4 defaults in a retail portfolio where the number of expected defaults is 2?

A4%

B18%

C9%

D2%

Show Suggested Answer

Suggested Answer: C

The actuarial or CreditRisk+ model considers default as an 'end of game' event modeled by a Poisson distribution. The annual number of defaults is a stochastic variable with a mean of and standard deviation equal to .

The probability of n defaults is given by (^n e^-) /n!, and therefore in this case is equal to (=2^4 * exp(-2))/FACT(4)) = 0.0902.

Note that CreditRisk+ is the same methodology as the actuarial approach, and requires using the Poisson distribution.

by Beth at Jan 05, 2026, 05:16 AM

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Leontine

21 days ago

I’m going with B too. The expected defaults suggest a higher probability.

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Dick

26 days ago

I’m torn between A and C. 4% feels too low for 4 defaults.

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Roxanne

1 month ago

I feel like it’s leaning towards option B, 18%. It seems reasonable.

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Lawrence

1 month ago

This question is tricky! I think it's about understanding the distribution.

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Christa

1 month ago

I calculated it, and I got 9% for option C.

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Della

2 months ago

Wait, how can it be 4%? That seems way too low!

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Rolande

2 months ago

I’m leaning towards option B, 18%.

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Ulysses

2 months ago

I think it's definitely more than 4%!

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Brice

2 months ago

The expected defaults are 2, so this is a Poisson distribution problem.

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Cory

2 months ago

Wait, is this a trick question? If the expected defaults are 2, then 4 defaults should be way less likely. I'm going to have to go with D) 2% on this one.

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Tenesha

2 months ago

Haha, I bet the exam writers are trying to trick us with these actuarial questions. I'm going with C) 9% - it's the middle ground, so it's probably the right answer.

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Annice

3 months ago

Hmm, this is a tricky one. I'm going to have to go with B) 18% - the CreditRisk+ model tends to give higher probabilities for larger deviations.

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Vannessa

3 months ago

D) 2% seems too low for 4 defaults when the expected is 2. I'd go with C) 9% as the most likely answer.

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Fletcher

3 months ago

I think the answer is B) 18%. The actuarial model would give a higher probability for a larger deviation from the expected defaults.

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Jenelle

4 months ago

I feel like the answer might be around 9% based on my calculations, but I need to double-check my work on the Poisson probabilities.

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Carlota

4 months ago

If I remember correctly, the expected number of defaults is the mean in a Poisson model, so maybe we can use that to find the probability of 4 defaults?

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Gary

4 months ago

I practiced a similar question where we had to calculate the probability of a certain number of defaults, but I can't recall the exact formula we used.

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Charlena

4 months ago

I think I remember something about using the Poisson distribution for these types of problems, but I'm not entirely sure how to apply it here.

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Osvaldo

4 months ago

Ah, I remember learning about these default modeling techniques. I think I can apply the right formulas to find the probability here.

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Erasmo

5 months ago

This seems straightforward. If the expected defaults are 2, then the probability of 4 defaults should be one of the answer choices. I'll work it out.

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Lemuel

5 months ago

I'm a bit unsure about the actuarial and CreditRisk+ details. I'll need to review those concepts before attempting to solve this.

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Skye

5 months ago

Okay, the key here is understanding the expected defaults and then calculating the probability of 4 defaults. I think I can work through this step-by-step.

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Tyisha

5 months ago

Hmm, this looks like a probability question related to default modeling. I'll need to think through the actuarial approach and the CreditRisk+ assumptions.

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Walker

15 days ago

This is tricky! I think I need to brush up on my probability skills.

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