Under the actuarial (or CreditRisk+) based modeling of defaults, what is the probability of 4 defaults in a retail portfolio where the number of expected defaults is 2?
Suggested Answer: C
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The actuarial or CreditRisk+ model considers default as an 'end of game' event modeled by a Poisson distribution. The annual number of defaults is a stochastic variable with a mean of and standard deviation equal to .
The probability of n defaults is given by (^n e^-) /n!, and therefore in this case is equal to (=2^4 * exp(-2))/FACT(4)) = 0.0902.
Note that CreditRisk+ is the same methodology as the actuarial approach, and requires using the Poisson distribution.
26 comments · newest first
LE
Leontine
5 months ago
I’m going with B too. The expected defaults suggest a higher probability.
DI
Dick
5 months ago
I’m torn between A and C. 4% feels too low for 4 defaults.
RO
Roxanne
6 months ago
I feel like it’s leaning towards option B, 18%. It seems reasonable.
LA
Lawrence
6 months ago
This question is tricky! I think it's about understanding the distribution.
CH
Christa
6 months ago
I calculated it, and I got 9% for option C.
DE
Della
6 months ago
Wait, how can it be 4%? That seems way too low!
RO
Rolande
6 months ago
I’m leaning towards option B, 18%.
UL
Ulysses
6 months ago
I think it's definitely more than 4%!
BR
Brice
7 months ago
The expected defaults are 2, so this is a Poisson distribution problem.
CO
Cory
7 months ago
Wait, is this a trick question? If the expected defaults are 2, then 4 defaults should be way less likely. I'm going to have to go with D) 2% on this one.
TE
Tenesha
7 months ago
Haha, I bet the exam writers are trying to trick us with these actuarial questions. I'm going with C) 9% - it's the middle ground, so it's probably the right answer.
AN
Annice
8 months ago
Hmm, this is a tricky one. I'm going to have to go with B) 18% - the CreditRisk+ model tends to give higher probabilities for larger deviations.
VA
Vannessa
8 months ago
D) 2% seems too low for 4 defaults when the expected is 2. I'd go with C) 9% as the most likely answer.
FL
Fletcher
8 months ago
I think the answer is B) 18%. The actuarial model would give a higher probability for a larger deviation from the expected defaults.
JE
Jenelle
8 months ago
I feel like the answer might be around 9% based on my calculations, but I need to double-check my work on the Poisson probabilities.
CA
Carlota
8 months ago
If I remember correctly, the expected number of defaults is the mean in a Poisson model, so maybe we can use that to find the probability of 4 defaults?
GA
Gary
9 months ago
I practiced a similar question where we had to calculate the probability of a certain number of defaults, but I can't recall the exact formula we used.
CH
Charlena
9 months ago
I think I remember something about using the Poisson distribution for these types of problems, but I'm not entirely sure how to apply it here.
OS
Osvaldo
9 months ago
Ah, I remember learning about these default modeling techniques. I think I can apply the right formulas to find the probability here.
ER
Erasmo
9 months ago
This seems straightforward. If the expected defaults are 2, then the probability of 4 defaults should be one of the answer choices. I'll work it out.
LE
Lemuel
9 months ago
I'm a bit unsure about the actuarial and CreditRisk+ details. I'll need to review those concepts before attempting to solve this.
SK
Skye
9 months ago
Okay, the key here is understanding the expected defaults and then calculating the probability of 4 defaults. I think I can work through this step-by-step.
TY
Tyisha
10 months ago
Hmm, this looks like a probability question related to default modeling. I'll need to think through the actuarial approach and the CreditRisk+ assumptions.
NA
Nana
3 months ago
I’m not so sure. What about option C? It feels safer.
BE
Beatriz
4 months ago
I’m leaning towards option B. Seems reasonable for 4 defaults.
WA
Walker
5 months ago
This is tricky! I think I need to brush up on my probability skills.