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PRMIA 8010 Exam - Topic 4 Question 79 Discussion

Actual exam question for PRMIA's 8010 exam
Question #: 79
Topic #: 4
[All 8010 Questions]

Which of the following steps are required for computing the total loss distribution for a bank for operational risk once individual UoM level loss distributions have been computed from the underlhying frequency and severity curves:

1. Simulate number of losses based on the frequency distribution

2. Simulate the dollar value of the losses from the severity distribution

3. Simulate random number from the copula used to model dependence between the UoMs

4. Compute dependent losses from aggregate distribution curves

Show Suggested Answer Hide Answer
Suggested Answer: C

A recap would be in order here: calculating operational risk capital is a multi-step process.

First, we fit curves to estimate the parameters to our chosen distribution types for frequency (eg, Poisson), and severity (eg, lognormal). Note that these curves are fitted at the UoM level - which is the lowest level of granularity at which modeling is carried out. Since there are many UoMs, there are are many frequency and severity distributions. However what we are interested in is the loss distribution for the entire bank from which the 99.9th percentile loss can be calculated. From the multiple frequency and severity distributions we have calculated, this becomes a two step process:

- Step 1: Calculate the aggregate loss distribution for each UoM. Each loss distribution is based upon and underlying frequency and severity distribution.

- Step 2: Combine the multiple loss distributions after considering the dependence between the different UoMs. The 'dependence' recognizes that the various UoMs are not completely independent, ie the loss distributions are not additive, and that there is a sort of diversification benefit in the sense that not all types of losses can occur at once and the joint probabilities of the different losses make the sum less than the sum of the parts.

Step 1 requires simulating a number, say n, of the number of losses that occur in a given year from a frequency distribution. Then n losses are picked from the severity distribution, and the total loss for the year is a summation of these losses. This becomes one data point. This process of simulating the number of losses and then identifying that number of losses is carried out a large number of times to get the aggregate loss distribution for a UoM.

Step 2 requires taking the different loss distributions from Step 1 and combining them considering the dependence between the events. The correlations between the losses are described by a 'copula', and combined together mathematically to get a single loss distribution for the entire bank. This allows the 99.9th percentile loss to be calculated.


Contribute your Thoughts:

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Mel
10 hours ago
Definitely need to simulate losses from both frequency and severity.
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Tatum
6 days ago
Haha, A? What kind of trick question is this? You can't just skip all the steps!
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Noah
11 days ago
I'm going to go with D. Gotta cover all the bases for this operational risk calculation.
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Erinn
16 days ago
A? Really? That can't be right. You definitely need to do at least some of those steps.
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Titus
21 days ago
Hmm, I'm leaning towards B. The dependence between UoMs is crucial, so steps 3 and 4 are essential.
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Alfreda
26 days ago
D seems like the right answer. You need to do all those steps to get the full picture of the total loss distribution.
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Arlie
1 month ago
I feel like all the steps are interconnected, so it might be D. But I’m not entirely confident about the copula simulation part.
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Nidia
1 month ago
I’m a bit confused about whether all steps are necessary. I thought we might not need to compute dependent losses if we already have the individual distributions.
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Noemi
1 month ago
I remember practicing a question that involved simulating dependent losses, so I feel like 3 and 4 are important. Could it be B?
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Nobuko
2 months ago
I think we definitely need to simulate the number of losses and the dollar value of those losses, so maybe it's C? But I'm not sure about the copula part.
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Lizette
2 months ago
I'm a little unsure about the copula part, but I think the overall process makes sense. I'll go with D) All of the above.
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Jeannetta
2 months ago
This seems straightforward. We need to do all the steps to compute the total loss distribution, so I'm confident that D) All of the above is the correct answer.
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Kristel
2 months ago
I'm pretty sure it's C. Simulating the losses and their values is key for computing the total loss distribution.
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Dylan
2 months ago
Okay, let me think this through. We need to simulate the frequency and severity, but we also need to account for the dependence between the UoMs. I think D) All of the above is the right answer.
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Asuncion
2 months ago
I think it's D. All steps are needed.
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Paulene
3 months ago
I’m leaning towards D. You need everything.
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Mariann
3 months ago
I agree, all of them play a role in the total loss distribution!
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Wilda
3 months ago
Hmm, I'm a bit confused. I think we also need to simulate a random number from the copula and compute the dependent losses, so I'm leaning towards D) All of the above.
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Stephen
3 months ago
I'm pretty sure we need to simulate the number of losses and the dollar value of the losses, so I'll go with C) 1 and 2.
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