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PRMIA 8010 Exam - Topic 10 Question 81 Discussion

Actual exam question for PRMIA's 8010 exam
Question #: 81
Topic #: 10
[All 8010 Questions]

Which of the following statements are true:

1. Credit risk and counterparty risk are synonymous

2. Counterparty risk is the contingent risk from a counterparty's default in derivative transactions

3. Counterparty risk is the risk of a loan default or the risk from moneys lent directly

4. The exposure at default is difficult to estimate for credit risk as it depends upon market movements

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Suggested Answer: C

Credit risk is the risk from a borrower defaulting on moneys lent. Counterparty risk, on the other hand, is the risk that a counterparty to a derivative transaction will be unable to pay at the time the transaction is in-the-money.

Credit risk therefore relates more to the banking book, counterparty risk relates more to the trading book. Credit risk and counterparty risk differ in that for counterparty risk, the amount at risk fluctuates for counterparty risk depending upon the value of the underlying derivative. Counterparty risk generally starts at zero, for most swaps and other derivatives are near zero value at inception. Over time, as the prices of the underlying instruments move, one party ends up owing money to the other. A deterioration in the financial situation of the party owing moneys may lead to a loss to the other party, resulting in counterparty risk. Counterparty risk can also arise from stock lending operations and repo trades.

Credit risk on the other hand is the traditional risk of default by a borrower, or a bank's customer who has taken a loan or has an overdraft or other credit facility.

Statement I is therefore incorrect as credit risk and counterparty risks are different.

Statement II is correct as counterparty risk is 'contingent' in the sense it arises only if the transaction with the counterparty ends up being in-the-money, and the counterparty defaults.

Statement III is incorrect. The statement describes credit risk.

Statement IV is incorrect, as the exposure is known for moneys lent. Derivative exposures for the future are difficult to estimate, they can even turn from moneys owed to moneys due as the value of the underlying changes.


Contribute your Thoughts:

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Fidelia
5 days ago
I’m a bit unsure about statement 2, but I think it’s true because counterparty risk does relate to defaults in derivatives.
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Allene
10 days ago
I remember discussing that credit risk and counterparty risk are not exactly the same, so I think statement 1 is false.
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Glendora
15 days ago
Alright, time to break this down step-by-step. I need to make sure I understand the nuances between these concepts.
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Mari
20 days ago
Ugh, risk management questions are the worst. I'm just going to take my best guess and move on.
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Shawnda
25 days ago
I've got a good handle on this topic, so I think I can knock this out. Time to apply what I've learned.
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Cheryl
1 month ago
Okay, let's see. I'm pretty sure 2 is correct, but I'm not sure about the others. Gotta read through this carefully.
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Hyun
1 month ago
Hmm, this looks like a tricky one. I'll need to think carefully about the differences between credit risk and counterparty risk.
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