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PRMIA Exam 8010 Topic 4 Question 55 Discussion

Actual exam question for PRMIA's 8010 exam
Question #: 55
Topic #: 4
[All 8010 Questions]

Under the KMV Moody's approach to credit risk measurement, which of the following expressions describes the expected 'default point' value of assets at which the firm may be expected to default?

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Suggested Answer: D

Recovery rates vary a great deal from year to year, and are difficult to predict. Therefore statement III is true. Similarly, any attempt to predict these is hamstrung by a high standard error, which can be as high as the historical mean itself. The error does not cancel itself out due to the effect of the business cycle making the error directionally biased. Thus statement IV is false.

Statement II is true as these are all factors that make forecasting recovery rates for any credit risk model rather difficult. Statement I is false because recovery rates are difficult to predict and assumptions are not easy to make.


Contribute your Thoughts:

Vanda
16 days ago
B looks tempting, but I'm gonna go with C. Can't go wrong with a good old 50% weighting, right?
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Marleen
18 days ago
Haha, I bet the exam writers had a field day coming up with these options. They're really trying to trick us, aren't they?
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Hyman
25 days ago
D seems more intuitive to me. The firm is more likely to default when its long-term obligations are higher.
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Mignon
8 days ago
I think D is the correct answer.
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Sue
1 months ago
I think the correct answer is C. It makes sense that the default point would be a weighted combination of short-term and long-term debt.
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Lezlie
12 hours ago
I'm not sure, I think it might be D instead.
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Shawna
3 days ago
I agree, it does make sense that the default point would be a weighted combination of short-term and long-term debt.
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Charlena
16 days ago
I think the correct answer is C.
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Ryan
2 months ago
But the expected 'default point' value is calculated based on the KMV Moody's approach, so it should be C) Short term debt + 0.5* Long term debt.
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Bronwyn
2 months ago
I disagree, I believe the answer is D) Long term debt + 0.5* Short term debt.
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Ryan
2 months ago
I think the answer is C) Short term debt + 0.5* Long term debt.
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