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PRMIA Exam 8010 Topic 1 Question 47 Discussion

Actual exam question for PRMIA's 8010 exam
Question #: 47
Topic #: 1
[All 8010 Questions]

Which of the following statements are true:

1. Credit risk and counterparty risk are synonymous

2. Counterparty risk is the contingent risk from a counterparty's default in derivative transactions

3. Counterparty risk is the risk of a loan default or the risk from moneys lent directly

4. The exposure at default is difficult to estimate for credit risk as it depends upon market movements

Show Suggested Answer Hide Answer
Suggested Answer: B

The persistence parameter, , is the coefficient of the prior day's variance in EWMA calculations. A higher value of the persistence parameter tends to 'persist' the prior value of variance for longer. Consider an extreme example - if the persistence parameter is equal to 1, the variance under EWMA will never change in response to returns.

1 - is the coefficient of recent market returns. As is lowered, 1 - increases, giving a greater weight to recent market returns or shocks. Therefore, as is lowered, the model will react faster to market shocks and give higher weights to recent returns, and at the same time reduce the weight on prior variance which will tend to persist for a shorter period.


Contribute your Thoughts:

Jerry
29 days ago
I'm just going to go with C. 'Counterparty risk' sounds like the fanciest way to say 'someone might not pay me back.' Simple is better, right?
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Jutta
15 days ago
User 1: I think it's B) 1 and 2.
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Maile
1 months ago
Okay, let me think this through. Counterparty risk is the risk of a default in a derivative transaction, and credit risk is the risk of a loan default. 2 and 3 make the most sense to me.
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Hector
1 months ago
Haha, I bet the exam writer was chuckling when they came up with these options. 'Counterparty risk' just sounds like something you'd find in a finance textbook, not real life.
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Marylin
8 days ago
Yeah, it's definitely a term you'd come across in finance.
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Denae
14 days ago
User 1: I think the correct statements are 2 and 3.
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Jutta
20 days ago
I agree, counterparty risk does sound like a fancy term.
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Letha
28 days ago
I think the correct answer is B) 1 and 2.
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Aileen
1 months ago
I know, right? These options are so specific.
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Nikita
1 months ago
Wait, I thought credit risk and counterparty risk were the same thing. This is so confusing, I'm going to have to re-read the material on this.
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Serina
1 months ago
Hmm, I see your point. Let's review the definitions again to make sure.
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Angella
2 months ago
I disagree, I believe the answer is A) 2 and 3.
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Serina
2 months ago
I think the correct answer is B) 1 and 2.
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Doug
2 months ago
Hmm, I see your point. Counterparty risk is indeed the contingent risk from a counterparty's default in derivative transactions.
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Audra
2 months ago
I disagree, I believe the answer is A) 2 and 3.
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Doug
2 months ago
I think the correct answer is B) 1 and 2.
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Della
2 months ago
I'm pretty sure 2 and 3 are the correct answers. Counterparty risk is definitely about derivative transactions, and credit risk is more about direct lending. The exposure at default is tricky to estimate, so 4 seems right too.
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Josphine
16 days ago
The exposure at default is tricky to estimate, so 4 seems right too.
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Armanda
27 days ago
And credit risk is more about direct lending.
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Darrin
1 months ago
Yes, counterparty risk is definitely about derivative transactions.
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Cheryll
1 months ago
I think you're right, 2 and 3 are the correct answers.
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