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PRMIA Exam 8010 Topic 1 Question 47 Discussion

Actual exam question for PRMIA's 8010 exam
Question #: 47
Topic #: 1
[All 8010 Questions]

Which of the following statements are true:

1. Credit risk and counterparty risk are synonymous

2. Counterparty risk is the contingent risk from a counterparty's default in derivative transactions

3. Counterparty risk is the risk of a loan default or the risk from moneys lent directly

4. The exposure at default is difficult to estimate for credit risk as it depends upon market movements

Show Suggested Answer Hide Answer
Suggested Answer: B

The persistence parameter, , is the coefficient of the prior day's variance in EWMA calculations. A higher value of the persistence parameter tends to 'persist' the prior value of variance for longer. Consider an extreme example - if the persistence parameter is equal to 1, the variance under EWMA will never change in response to returns.

1 - is the coefficient of recent market returns. As is lowered, 1 - increases, giving a greater weight to recent market returns or shocks. Therefore, as is lowered, the model will react faster to market shocks and give higher weights to recent returns, and at the same time reduce the weight on prior variance which will tend to persist for a shorter period.


Contribute your Thoughts:

Serina
6 hours ago
I think the correct answer is B) 1 and 2.
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Doug
1 days ago
Hmm, I see your point. Counterparty risk is indeed the contingent risk from a counterparty's default in derivative transactions.
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Audra
3 days ago
I disagree, I believe the answer is A) 2 and 3.
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Doug
5 days ago
I think the correct answer is B) 1 and 2.
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Della
9 days ago
I'm pretty sure 2 and 3 are the correct answers. Counterparty risk is definitely about derivative transactions, and credit risk is more about direct lending. The exposure at default is tricky to estimate, so 4 seems right too.
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