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Finra Exam SIE Topic 3 Question 9 Discussion

Actual exam question for Finra's SIE exam
Question #: 9
Topic #: 3
[All SIE Questions]

Which of the following is the primary risk of using asset allocation models without periodic rebalancing?

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Suggested Answer: C

Step by Step Explanation:

Rebalancing: Ensures that a portfolio remains aligned with its target allocation. Without rebalancing, outperforming assets can become overweighted, increasing exposure to specific risks.

Incorrect Options:

Inflation: Impacts purchasing power but isn't tied to rebalancing.

Marketability: Refers to liquidity and isn't linked to allocation models.

Interest Rate Risk: Relates to fixed-income investments and isn't directly addressed by allocation models.


SEC Investor Bulletin on Asset Allocation: SEC Asset Allocation.

Contribute your Thoughts:

Trinidad
21 hours ago
I think the primary risk is C) Overweighting.
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