Finra Series-63 Exam - Topic 8 Question 18 Discussion

Actual exam question for Finra's Series-63 exam

Question #: 18
Topic #: 8

In which of the following scenarios will the investment adviser be subject to criminal fraud charges?

AAn adviser owns the stock of TweedleDee Corporation and has issued a report recommending the stock as a ''buy'' without disclosing the fact that it owns the stock.

BAn adviser owns the stock of TweedleDee Corporation and has issued a report recommending the stock as a ''buy,'' disclosing the fact that it owns the stock

CAn adviser sells its shares of TweedleDee Corporation after issuing a report recommending the stock as a ''buy.''

Dall of the above. It is considered criminal fraud for an investment adviser to make any recommendations on a security in which it has or plans to have a position.

Show Suggested Answer

Suggested Answer: C

An adviser that sells its shares of TweedleDee Corporation after issuing a report recommending the stock as a ''buy'' is subject to criminal fraud charges for willfully deceiving its clients.

The adviser who recommends the stock as a buy without disclosing the fact that it owns the stock is engaging in a prohibited activity for non-disclosure, but would be unlikely to face criminal fraud charges.

by Starr at Jan 05, 2026, 05:16 AM

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Lashawn

3 days ago

B is the correct choice. As long as the ownership is disclosed, it's not considered fraud.

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Lavina

8 days ago

D is the right answer. Investment advisers must disclose any positions they have in securities they recommend.

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Aracelis

13 days ago

A is the correct answer. Failing to disclose a conflict of interest is considered fraud.

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Viola

18 days ago

I feel like D might be too broad. Just because an adviser has a position doesn't automatically mean they're committing fraud, right? It depends on the disclosure.

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Brittni

23 days ago

I remember a practice question that was similar to this, and it emphasized the importance of disclosure. So, I think A is the right answer, but I’m not confident about the others.

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Ciara

29 days ago

I'm not entirely sure about option C. Selling shares after a recommendation feels sketchy, but does it really count as fraud if they disclosed it?

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Juan

1 month ago

I think option A could definitely lead to criminal fraud since the adviser didn't disclose their ownership. It seems like a clear conflict of interest.

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Annmarie

1 month ago

I'm a bit confused on this one. The wording of the question is tripping me up. I think I need to re-read it a few times and really think through the different scenarios to figure out the right answer.

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Kimberlie

1 month ago

I'm pretty confident that the answer is D. Any recommendations on a security where the adviser has a position, whether disclosed or not, is considered criminal fraud. Gotta be super careful about conflicts of interest in this field.

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Theron

2 months ago

Okay, let me see if I can break this down. If the adviser disclosed their ownership, then that seems like it would be okay, right? But if they didn't disclose it, then that's a problem. I'm leaning towards A or D as the correct answer.

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Pete

2 months ago

Hmm, I'm not sure. I think it might depend on the specific laws and regulations around investment advisers and disclosures. I'll need to think this through carefully.

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Blondell

2 months ago

I think the key here is whether the adviser disclosed their ownership of the stock. If they didn't disclose it, then that seems like fraud to me.

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