When one buys a cash instrument, for example 100 shares of ABC Inc., the payoff is linear(disregarding the impact of dividends). If share are purchased at $50 and the price appreciated to $75, we have ________ on a mark-to-mark basis.
I feel like I might be mixing up the terms here, but if we bought 100 shares at $50 and they went up to $75, wouldn't that mean we lost money? Or is it the opposite?
Wait, I'm not sure about this. The wording of the question is a bit confusing, and I'm not entirely sure what a "cash instrument" is in this context. I'll have to review the material and see if I can figure out the right approach.
I'm pretty confident about this one. The question is straightforward, and the math is simple. As long as you understand the concept of a linear payoff, you should be able to get this right.
Okay, I think I got this. The key is that the payoff is linear, disregarding dividends. So the gain would simply be the difference between the purchase price and the selling price, multiplied by the number of shares. That means option C is the correct answer.
Hmm, I'm a bit confused. The question is talking about a "cash instrument" and "mark-to-market basis," which makes me think there might be something more complicated going on here. I'll have to think this through carefully.
This seems pretty straightforward. I'd go with option C - made $2500. The question is asking about the payoff on a mark-to-market basis, and if the shares were bought at $50 and appreciated to $75, that's a $25 gain per share on 100 shares, which is $2500.
Angelyn
8 hours agoJustine
6 days agoElise
11 days agoClaribel
16 days agoSherita
21 days agoMarg
26 days agoCandida
1 month agoHelga
1 month agoPaul
1 month agoEdison
2 months agoSena
2 months agoElke
2 months agoMiles
2 months agoLeigha
2 months agoTheola
3 months agoCarri
3 months agoHoward
3 months agoShawna
3 months agoRenato
2 months ago