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PTCB PTCE Exam - Topic 7 Question 75 Discussion

Posted by Talia on Oct 04, 2023 at 05:55 PM

A patient fills a prescription for a 30-day supply of amlodipine 10 mg. Two days later, the patient brings in a prescription for diltiazem 30 mg from their primary careprovider. Which of the following rejection messages is the pharmacy technician most likely to receive?

Suggested Answer: C

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34 comments · newest first
ME
Melina 11 months ago
I thought they could prescribe both if needed?
BE
Benedict 11 months ago
Yup, B is the right choice. Can't have both at the same time.
SH
Sherell 11 months ago
Wait, are they really going to reject it just for that? Seems odd.
JA
Jannette 11 months ago
I agree, B makes the most sense here.
JO
Johnna 11 months ago
Definitely therapeutic duplication! Both are calcium channel blockers.
LO
Lorrie 12 months ago
I feel like prior authorization is usually for more expensive drugs, so I don't think that's it. Therapeutic duplication sounds right to me.
MI
Michel 12 months ago
I recall discussing how diltiazem and amlodipine can interact, so therapeutic duplication seems likely, but I'm not 100% confident.
MI
Micah 12 months ago
I'm not entirely sure, but I remember a practice question about similar medications causing a rejection message. Could it be refill too soon?
CH
Cherilyn 1 year ago
I think the answer might be therapeutic duplication since both amlodipine and diltiazem are calcium channel blockers.
NI
Nickie 1 year ago
I'm a little confused on this one. Is it possible the pharmacy could get a "refill too soon" message instead? I'll have to review the details again.
WE
Weldon 1 year ago
Okay, I've got this. The patient is already on amlodipine, and now they're trying to fill a prescription for diltiazem, which is another calcium channel blocker. That would definitely trigger a therapeutic duplication rejection.
KI
King 1 year ago
Hmm, I'm not totally sure about this one. Could it also be a prior authorization required message? I'll have to think it through carefully.
LA
Latanya 1 year ago
This one seems straightforward. The patient is already taking amlodipine, so the pharmacy would likely get a therapeutic duplication message for the diltiazem.
EV
Eveline 1 year ago
I'm feeling pretty confident about this one. The description of mapping logic and runtime transformation points to a multi-device broker as the correct answer.
JE
Jestine 1 year ago
This looks like a straightforward Scrum Master responsibilities question. I'm confident I can identify the one that's not correct.
TA
Tamar 1 year ago
I'm a bit confused on this one. I'll need to review the design principles and how they work together to ensure the others are properly applied.
DA
Darci 1 year ago
I hope it's not D, because shareholders really don't have the tools to detect fraud themselves. That'd be unrealistic, right?
NI
Nilsa 1 year ago
This is a tricky one, but I'm going to go with B) Therapeutic duplication. The patient is already taking amlodipine, so adding diltiazem is likely to cause some problems.
BU
Buddy 1 year ago
↳ replying to Nilsa
D: It's important to make sure the patient's medications are safe to take together.
MA
Mauricio 1 year ago
↳ replying to Nilsa
C: I agree, the pharmacy technician will probably need to address this potential interaction.
CH
Charlena 1 year ago
↳ replying to Nilsa
B: Yeah, adding diltiazem on top of amlodipine could definitely cause some issues.
AD
Adolph 1 year ago
↳ replying to Nilsa
A: I think you're right, B) Therapeutic duplication seems like the most likely rejection message.
ME
Mertie 1 year ago
Haha, the pharmacy technician is definitely going to have their hands full with this one! I think the answer is B) Therapeutic duplication. Two blood pressure meds? That's a recipe for some interesting interactions.
GE
Geoffrey 1 year ago
↳ replying to Mertie
B) Therapeutic duplication
AR
Arlen 1 year ago
↳ replying to Mertie
A) Prior authorization required
EV
Evette 1 year ago
But could it also be Prior authorization required, since the patient just filled a prescription for amlodipine?
ZA
Zack 2 years ago
I'm not too sure about this one. Could it be D) Refill too soon since the patient just filled the amlodipine prescription a couple of days ago?
CA
Carli 2 years ago
Hmm, this is an interesting one. I'm going to guess B) Therapeutic duplication since the patient is now taking two different blood pressure medications.
LA
Lauran 1 year ago
↳ replying to Carli
D) Refill too soon
IN
Ines 1 year ago
↳ replying to Carli
C) NDC not covered
BR
Brock 1 year ago
↳ replying to Carli
B) Therapeutic duplication
BA
Barrett 1 year ago
↳ replying to Carli
A) Prior authorization required
DO
Dorsey 2 years ago
I agree with Tammara, because amlodipine and diltiazem are both calcium channel blockers.
TA
Tammara 2 years ago
I think the rejection message would be Therapeutic duplication.
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