PTCB PTCE Exam - Topic 7 Question 75 Discussion

Actual exam question for PTCB's PTCE exam

Question #: 75
Topic #: 7

[All PTCE Questions]

A patient fills a prescription for a 30-day supply of amlodipine 10 mg. Two days later, the patient brings in a prescription for diltiazem 30 mg from their primary careprovider. Which of the following rejection messages is the pharmacy technician most likely to receive?

APrior authorization required

BTherapeutic duplication

CNDC not covered

DRefill too soon

Show Suggested Answer

Suggested Answer: C

by Talia at Oct 04, 2023, 05:55 PM

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Melina

3 months ago

I thought they could prescribe both if needed?

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Benedict

3 months ago

Yup, B is the right choice. Can't have both at the same time.

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Sherell

4 months ago

Wait, are they really going to reject it just for that? Seems odd.

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Jannette

4 months ago

I agree, B makes the most sense here.

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Johnna

4 months ago

Definitely therapeutic duplication! Both are calcium channel blockers.

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Lorrie

4 months ago

I feel like prior authorization is usually for more expensive drugs, so I don't think that's it. Therapeutic duplication sounds right to me.

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Michel

4 months ago

I recall discussing how diltiazem and amlodipine can interact, so therapeutic duplication seems likely, but I'm not 100% confident.

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Micah

4 months ago

I'm not entirely sure, but I remember a practice question about similar medications causing a rejection message. Could it be refill too soon?

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Cherilyn

5 months ago

I think the answer might be therapeutic duplication since both amlodipine and diltiazem are calcium channel blockers.

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Nickie

5 months ago

I'm a little confused on this one. Is it possible the pharmacy could get a "refill too soon" message instead? I'll have to review the details again.

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Weldon

5 months ago

Okay, I've got this. The patient is already on amlodipine, and now they're trying to fill a prescription for diltiazem, which is another calcium channel blocker. That would definitely trigger a therapeutic duplication rejection.

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King

5 months ago

Hmm, I'm not totally sure about this one. Could it also be a prior authorization required message? I'll have to think it through carefully.

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Latanya

5 months ago

This one seems straightforward. The patient is already taking amlodipine, so the pharmacy would likely get a therapeutic duplication message for the diltiazem.

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Eveline

5 months ago

I'm feeling pretty confident about this one. The description of mapping logic and runtime transformation points to a multi-device broker as the correct answer.

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Jestine

5 months ago

This looks like a straightforward Scrum Master responsibilities question. I'm confident I can identify the one that's not correct.

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Tamar

5 months ago

I'm a bit confused on this one. I'll need to review the design principles and how they work together to ensure the others are properly applied.

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Darci

5 months ago

I hope it's not D, because shareholders really don't have the tools to detect fraud themselves. That'd be unrealistic, right?

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Nilsa

10 months ago

This is a tricky one, but I'm going to go with B) Therapeutic duplication. The patient is already taking amlodipine, so adding diltiazem is likely to cause some problems.

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Buddy

8 months ago

D: It's important to make sure the patient's medications are safe to take together.

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Mauricio

9 months ago

C: I agree, the pharmacy technician will probably need to address this potential interaction.

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Charlena

9 months ago

B: Yeah, adding diltiazem on top of amlodipine could definitely cause some issues.

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Adolph

10 months ago

A: I think you're right, B) Therapeutic duplication seems like the most likely rejection message.

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Mertie

10 months ago

Haha, the pharmacy technician is definitely going to have their hands full with this one! I think the answer is B) Therapeutic duplication. Two blood pressure meds? That's a recipe for some interesting interactions.

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Geoffrey

10 months ago

B) Therapeutic duplication

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Arlen

10 months ago

A) Prior authorization required

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Evette

10 months ago

But could it also be Prior authorization required, since the patient just filled a prescription for amlodipine?

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Zack

11 months ago

I'm not too sure about this one. Could it be D) Refill too soon since the patient just filled the amlodipine prescription a couple of days ago?

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Carli

11 months ago

Hmm, this is an interesting one. I'm going to guess B) Therapeutic duplication since the patient is now taking two different blood pressure medications.

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