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PRMIA Exam 8010 Topic 2 Question 63 Discussion

Actual exam question for PRMIA's 8010 exam
Question #: 63
Topic #: 2
[All 8010 Questions]

If the odds of default are 1:5, what is the probability of default?

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Suggested Answer: C

Concentration risk in a credit portfolio arises due to a high degree of correlation between the default probabilities of the issuers of securities in the portfolio. For example, the fortunes of the issuers in the same industry may be highly correlated, and an investor exposed to multiple such borrowers may face 'concentration risk'.

A low degree of correlation, or independence of individual defaults in the portfolio actually reduces or even eliminates concentration risk.

The fact that issuers are from the same country may not necessarily give rise to concentration risk - for example, a bank with all US based borrowers in different industries or with different retail exposure types may not face practically any concentration risk. What really matters is the default correlations between the borrowers, for example a lender exposed to cement producers across the globe may face a high degree of concentration risk.


Contribute your Thoughts:

Stephania
23 days ago
Wait, if the odds are 1:5, does that mean the probability is 50%? Because it's a coin flip, right? Oh, no, I think I'm overthinking this. Let me re-read the question carefully.
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Dorothy
26 days ago
I bet the correct answer is B) 20.00%. After all, 1 out of 6 events is a default, so the probability has to be 20%. I'm feeling confident about this one!
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Hyun
28 days ago
Hmm, let's see. If the odds are 1:5, that means the probability of default is 12%. Because the total number of possible outcomes is 6, and the number of favorable outcomes is 1. Easy peasy!
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Veronique
7 days ago
I think the probability of default is 20.00%.
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Stephaine
2 months ago
Wait, what? If the odds are 1:5, that means the probability of default is 50%. It's a 50/50 chance, right? This question is a trick!
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Elfriede
27 days ago
The odds and probability are different. The correct answer is 20.00%.
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Claribel
1 months ago
No, the probability of default is not 50%. It's actually 20%.
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Patti
2 months ago
I'm pretty sure the probability is 20%. The odds of 1:5 means that for every 6 events, 1 of them is a default. So the probability of default is 1/6 or 20%.
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Goldie
2 months ago
Okay, let's think this through. If the odds of default are 1:5, that means the probability of default is the number of favorable outcomes (1) divided by the total number of possible outcomes (1 + 5 = 6). So the probability should be 1/6 or 16.67%.
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Nicholle
2 months ago
I'm not sure, but I think the answer is A) 16.67% as well. It makes sense based on the odds given.
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Kathryn
2 months ago
I agree with Margret, because the probability is calculated by dividing 1 by the sum of the odds plus 1.
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Margret
2 months ago
I think the answer is A) 16.67%
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