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CompTIA CAS-004 Exam Questions
- Topic 1: Security Architecture: This topic focuses on designing secure network architectures based on specific scenarios and organizational requirements. It involves analyzing security objectives and integrating software applications securely into enterprise architectures.
- Topic 2: Security Operations: The topic emphasizes on day-to-day security operations and threat management. It includes performing threat management activities, analyzing indicators of compromise, and conducting vulnerability management tasks based on given scenarios.
- Topic 3: Security Engineering and Cryptography: It delves into implementing secure configurations for enterprise mobility, configuring endpoint security controls, and discussing security considerations for specific sectors and operational technologies.
- Topic 4: Governance, Risk, and Compliance: This topic centers around governance, risk management, and compliance. It covers applying risk strategies based on requirements, managing and mitigating vendor risks, and explaining compliance frameworks and legal considerations impacting organizational security.
Free CompTIA CAS-004 Exam Actual Questions
Note: Premium Questions for CAS-004 were last updated On Oct. 05, 2025 (see below)
Which of the following describes the system responsible for storing private encryption/decryption files with a third party to ensure these files are stored safely?
Key escrow is the system responsible for storing private encryption/decryption files with a third party to ensure these files are stored safely. Key escrow is an arrangement in which the keys needed to decrypt encrypted data are held in escrow by a trusted third party that can release them under certain conditions. Key escrow can be useful for backup or recovery purposes, or for complying with legal or regulatory requirements that may demand access to encrypted data.
B . TPM is not the system responsible for storing private encryption/decryption files with a third party to ensure these files are stored safely. TPM stands for Trusted Platform Module, which is a hardware device that provides secure storage and generation of cryptographic keys on a computer. TPM does not involve any third party or escrow service.
C . Trust models are not the system responsible for storing private encryption/decryption files with a third party to ensure these files are stored safely. Trust models are frameworks that define how entities can establish and maintain trust relationships in a network or system. Trust models do not necessarily involve any third party or escrow service.
D . Code signing is not the system responsible for storing private encryption/decryption files with a third party to ensure these files are stored safely. Code signing is a process of using digital signatures to verify the authenticity and integrity of software code. Code signing does not involve any third party or escrow service.
UESTION NO: 36
Which of the following is a benefit of using steganalysis techniques in forensic response?
Steganalysis is the process of detecting hidden data in files or media, such as images, audio, or video. One technique of steganalysis is to identify least significant bit encoding, which is a method of hiding data by altering the least significant bits of each byte in a file. For example, a .wav file could contain hidden data encoded in the least significant bits of each audio sample. Steganalysis techniques can helpforensic responders to discover hidden evidence or malicious payloads. Breaking a symmetric cipher, determining the frequency of attacks, or maintaining chain of custody are not related to steganalysis. Verified Reference: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-steganography https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide
An enterprise is undergoing an audit to review change management activities when promoting code to production. The audit reveals the following:
* Some developers can directly publish code to the production environment.
* Static code reviews are performed adequately.
* Vulnerability scanning occurs on a regularly scheduled basis per policy.
Which of the following should be noted as a recommendation within the audit report?
A security analyst is performing a vulnerability assessment on behalf of a client. The analyst must define what constitutes a risk to the organization.
Which of the following should be the analyst's FIRST action?
This is because a risk assessment requires identifying the assets that are valuable to the organization and could be targeted by attackers. A full inventory of information and data assets can help the analyst prioritize the most critical assets and determine their potential exposure to threats. Without knowing what assets are at stake, the analyst cannot effectively assess the risk level or the impact of an attack. Creating an inventory of assets is also a prerequisite for performing other actions, such as following compliance standards, measuring availability, or conducting penetration tests.
A company undergoing digital transformation is reviewing the resiliency of a CSP and is concerned about meeting SLA requirements in the event of a CSP incident.
Which of the following would be BEST to proceed with the transformation?
A multicloud provider solution is the best option for proceeding with the digital transformation while ensuring SLA (service level agreement) requirements in the event of a CSP (cloud service provider) incident. A multicloud provider solution is a strategy that involves using multiple CSPs for different cloud services or applications, such as infrastructure, platform, or software as a service. A multicloud provider solution can provide resiliency, redundancy, and availability for cloud services or applications, as it can distribute the workload and risk across different CSPs and avoid single points of failure or vendor lock-in. An on-premises solution as a backup is not a good option for proceeding with the digital transformation, as it could involve high costs, complexity, or maintenance for maintaining both cloud and on-premises resources, as well as affect the scalability or flexibility of cloud services or applications. A load balancer with a round-robin configuration is not a good option for proceeding with the digital transformation, as it could introduce latency or performance issues for cloud services or applications, as well as not provide sufficient resiliency or redundancy in case of a CSP incident. An active-active solution within the same tenant is not a good option for proceeding with the digital transformation, as it could still be affected by a CSP incident that impacts the entire tenant or region, as well as increase the costs or complexity of managing multiple instances of cloud services or applications. Verified Reference: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-multicloud https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide
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