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CIMAPRO19-P03-1 Exam - Topic 6 Question 110 Discussion

Posted by Jeanice on Jul 20, 2026 at 06:54 PM

A UK manufacturing company has simultaneously:

* purchased a put option to sell USD 1million at an exercise price of GBP1.00 = USD1.65

* sold a call option that grants the option holder the right to buy USD 1million at a price of GBP1.00 = USD1.61(this option has the same maturity date as the put).

Which of the following is a valid explanation for entering into these option positions?

Suggested Answer: A

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12 comments · newest first
PA
Pa 2 months ago
I lean towards option D. Extra protection is crucial for payments.
LI
Linn 2 months ago
I disagree. Option C is better. They can benefit if USD strengthens.
LY
Lynelle 2 months ago
I think option A makes sense. They want to hedge their USD income.
KE
Keena 2 months ago
Wait, how does offsetting premiums even work in this case?
AI
Ailene 2 months ago
D) sounds right, they need protection against a stronger USD.
LA
Lawana 2 months ago
C) is interesting, but why would they want to sell a call then?
ZE
Zena 3 months ago
I disagree, B) is more likely since they might be paying a supplier.
GA
Garry 3 months ago
A) makes sense if they're expecting to receive USD.
DE
Delmy 3 months ago
I recall something about using options to offset costs, so maybe option B is right, but it seems a bit off since they’re selling a call.
LE
Letha 3 months ago
I feel like option C could also be valid since they might want to benefit if the USD strengthens, but I'm not completely confident.
LE
Leatha 3 months ago
I think option A makes sense because if they're expecting to receive USD, they would want to protect that amount with the put.
KE
Kent 3 months ago
I remember we discussed how companies use options to hedge against currency fluctuations, but I'm not sure which option fits best here.
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