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CIMAPRA19-F02-1 Exam - Topic 4 Question 107 Discussion

Actual exam question for CIMA's CIMAPRA19-F02-1 exam
Question #: 107
Topic #: 4
[All CIMAPRA19-F02-1 Questions]

Which of the following statements are INCORRECT with regards to impairment of financial instruments; Select ALL that apply.

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Suggested Answer: A, B

by Latricia at Feb 09, 2025, 10:54 AM

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Fabiola
3 months ago
Wait, are held to maturity instruments really measured at amortised cost? That seems off!
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Berry
3 months ago
E sounds correct to me, but I could be wrong.
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Alease
3 months ago
C is a valid point, but I don't think it's always a sign of impairment.
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Kent
4 months ago
I thought D was right, but now I'm not so sure.
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Salley
4 months ago
A and B are definitely incorrect.
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Rebecka
4 months ago
For statement D, I believe it’s true that the carrying amount is reduced directly or through an allowance, but I’m not sure if that applies to all types of financial instruments.
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Dahlia
4 months ago
I practiced a similar question where a breach of contract indicated impairment, so I think statement C could be correct, but I need to double-check.
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Hermila
4 months ago
I think statement B is tricky; I recall that we write down assets to fair value only if there's a loss, but I'm not completely confident about the specifics.
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Aretha
5 months ago
I remember that held to maturity instruments are usually measured at amortised cost, but I'm not sure if they are impacted by impairment like available for sale assets.
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Cordell
5 months ago
I'm a bit unsure about the details on how impairment losses are recognized. I'll need to think through that carefully before answering.
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Wilda
5 months ago
This is a good opportunity to showcase my knowledge of financial instrument impairment. I feel confident I can select the incorrect statements accurately.
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Sonia
5 months ago
Okay, I've got this. The key is identifying which statements are incorrect regarding impairment. I'll methodically go through each option and evaluate whether it's right or wrong.
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Florencia
5 months ago
Hmm, I'm a bit confused on the distinction between amortized cost and fair value measurement for impairment. I'll need to re-read that section in my notes to make sure I understand it properly.
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Vilma
5 months ago
This question looks tricky, but I think I can tackle it. I'll need to carefully review the key differences between held-to-maturity, available-for-sale, and other financial instrument categories.
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Margarett
12 months ago
E is the correct answer. I'm going to need a calculator the size of a small country to figure out those present value calculations.
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Gwen
12 months ago
D is correct. Impairment losses can be recorded directly against the asset or through an allowance account. Either way, the accountant's job is to make the numbers look as ugly as possible.
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Enola
11 months ago
E) The impairment loss on held to maturity instruments is the difference between the assets carrying amount and the present value of its future cashflows.
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Dorian
11 months ago
C) If a contract relating to a financial instrument is breached then this might be an indication of impairment.
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Melissa
11 months ago
B) If a loss is suspected following an impairment review, a financial asset is written down to its fair value.
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Martin
11 months ago
A) Held to maturity instruments and available for sale assets are both measured at amortised cost and are therefore impacted by impairment.
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Maia
12 months ago
C is correct. A breach of contract can be an indication of impairment. Looks like someone's been slacking off on their loan payments!
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Cristy
11 months ago
C) If a contract relating to a financial instrument is breached then this might be an indication of impairment.
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Cammy
12 months ago
A) Held to maturity instruments and available for sale assets are both measured at amortised cost and are therefore impacted by impairment.
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Cheryl
1 year ago
B is incorrect. If a loss is suspected, the asset should be written down to its recoverable amount, not its fair value.
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Izetta
11 months ago
A is incorrect. Held to maturity instruments are not measured at amortised cost, they are measured at cost less impairment.
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Izetta
11 months ago
B is incorrect. The asset should be written down to its recoverable amount, not its fair value.
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Lynelle
1 year ago
I believe statement C is incorrect because a breached contract is not necessarily an indication of impairment.
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Paulina
1 year ago
A and E are correct. If a financial instrument is held to maturity, it should be measured at amortized cost and impacted by impairment. The impairment loss is the difference between the carrying amount and the present value of future cash flows.
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Cassie
1 year ago
C) If a contract relating to a financial instrument is breached then this might be an indication of impairment.
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Rikki
1 year ago
B) If a loss is suspected following an impairment review, a financial asset is written down to its fair value.
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Marguerita
1 year ago
I disagree with you, Penney. Statement A is actually correct because both held to maturity instruments and available for sale assets are measured at amortised cost.
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Penney
1 year ago
I think statement A is incorrect because held to maturity instruments are not impacted by impairment.
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