I feel like I’ve seen a question like this before, and I think investors in Y would expect a higher return due to lower risk. So maybe C is the answer?
I've got this! The higher gearing of W means a greater proportion of its profits will go towards interest payments, leaving less available for dividends. So B is the correct answer.
I'm a bit confused by this one. I know gearing is related to debt levels, but I'm not sure how that translates to the statements given. I'll need to review my notes on this topic.
Hmm, this question is testing my understanding of gearing and risk. I'll need to think carefully about the implications of the different gearing levels.
B) A greater proportion of profit will be available out of which to declare a dividend in W. Hmm, I don't think so. The high gearing in W means more of the profits will go towards servicing the debt, leaving less for dividends.
D) Y has a greater commitment to meet interest payments than W. Haha, nice try, but no. The high gearing of 95% in W actually means it has a greater commitment to meet interest payments, not Y.
C) Investors in Y will expect a higher return than investors in W. This makes sense, as Y has lower gearing and hence lower risk, so investors would expect a lower return.
A) Investing in W carries a higher level of risk than investing in Y. This is clearly the correct answer. The high gearing of 95% in W means it has a much higher debt burden, making it a riskier investment.
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