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ASQ CQE Exam - Topic 2 Question 131 Discussion

Posted by Jerry on Aug 18, 2026 at 12:43 AM

The values of two different variables are related to each other such that an increase in the value of the first variable is accompanied by a decrease in the value of the second variable. If the variables are perfectly correlated, their correlation coefficient will be equal to

Suggested Answer: D

The correlation coefficient measures the strength and direction of a linear relationship between two variables. A correlation coefficient of -1.0 indicates a perfect negative correlation, meaning that as one variable increases, the other decreases.


Moore, D.S., McCabe, G.P., & Craig, B.A. (2017). Introduction to the Practice of Statistics. W.H. Freeman.

Montgomery, D.C. (2009). Introduction to Statistical Quality Control. Wiley.

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12 comments · newest first
RU
Rueben 3 days ago
I was confused at first, but -1.0 fits perfectly.
TO
Tony 8 days ago
Agreed, -1.0 makes sense. One goes up, the other goes down.
SO
Sol 13 days ago
I think it's D) -1.0. Perfect negative correlation!
CL
Clement 18 days ago
Just to clarify, 0.0 means no correlation, right?
DE
Desirae 23 days ago
Yup, -1.0 means they move in opposite directions!
NO
Nobuko 29 days ago
Wait, how can it be -1.0? That seems odd.
TY
Tyra 1 month ago
Totally agree, it's definitely -1.0!
KI
Kizzy 1 month ago
The correlation coefficient is -1.0 for perfect negative correlation.
LA
Lajuana 1 month ago
If they are perfectly correlated in opposite directions, it has to be -1.0, right? I feel confident about that!
AL
Alease 2 months ago
I’m a bit confused. I thought a correlation of 0.0 meant no relationship at all, but I guess that doesn't apply here.
RO
Rolande 2 months ago
I remember practicing a question like this, and I believe the answer is D) -1.0 since one variable increases while the other decreases.
TR
Tracie 2 months ago
I think the correlation coefficient for perfectly negative correlation is -1.0, but I'm not completely sure.
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