Deal of The Day! Hurry Up, Grab the Special Discount - Save 25% - Ends In 00:00:00 Coupon code: SAVE25
Welcome to Pass4Success

- Free Preparation Discussions

ASQ CQE Exam - Topic 2 Question 122 Discussion

Posted by Tuyet on Mar 02, 2026 at 06:12 AM

If the mean time between failures (MTBF) for a device is 200 hours, what is the constant failure rate per hour?

Suggested Answer: B

The constant failure rate per hour is calculated as the inverse of the mean time between failures (MTBF). Given an MTBF of 200 hours: Failure rate () = 1 / MTBF = 1 / 200 = 0.005


Get Premium CQE Questions as Interactive Web-Based Practice Test or PDF Real Exam Format Detailed Explanations Instant Access Get Your Practice Test
26 comments · newest first
SH
Sharee 1 month ago
I disagree, A) seems too high. B) makes more sense for reliability.
CH
Charlesetta 1 month ago
Yes, it's straightforward! 200 hours means 1/200 = 0.005. So A) is correct.
GR
Gracia 2 months ago
I feel confused about this one. Is it really that simple?
AN
Antonio 2 months ago
I think the answer is B) 0.002. MTBF is the inverse of failure rate.
JU
Judy 2 months ago
I feel confused. Why is it not C) 0.500? That seems high.
GA
Gabriele 2 months ago
Hold on, Shay. That's A) 0.005.
SH
Shay 2 months ago
Yeah, I agree with you. It's 1/MTBF. So, 1/200 = 0.005.
RA
Rana 2 months ago
I think the answer is B) 0.002. MTBF is 200 hours, right?
TA
Tanja 3 months ago
I agree with B) 0.002. It makes sense mathematically!
PA
Paris 3 months ago
I feel like A) 0.005 is too high. It doesn't match MTBF.
BR
Britt 3 months ago
I believe it's B) 0.002. MTBF is 200 hours, so 1/200.
LA
Laura 3 months ago
This question is tricky! I think the failure rate is important.
AV
Avery 3 months ago
Nope, it's 0.005 for sure!
RO
Rosina 4 months ago
I thought it would be lower, like 0.002.
CH
Chuck 5 months ago
Wait, are we sure about that? Seems off to me.
DA
Daren 5 months ago
Totally agree, it's definitely 0.005!
AI
Aileen 5 months ago
The failure rate is the inverse of MTBF, so it's 0.005.
YO
Yolande 6 months ago
Just to clarify, that's 1 failure every 200 hours, right?
MA
Maryln 6 months ago
I thought it would be higher, but yeah, 0.005 makes sense.
RO
Ronna 6 months ago
Wait, are we sure about that? Seems off to me.
CH
Chantay 6 months ago
Totally agree, it's definitely 0.005!
BR
Brett 6 months ago
The failure rate is the inverse of MTBF, so it's 0.005.
LA
Lai 6 months ago
I recall that the failure rate is usually expressed per hour, so I think it’s definitely 0.005, but I’m a bit hesitant.
RE
Reynalda 7 months ago
I feel like I might be mixing up the options. Is 0.002 the right answer? That seems low for a failure rate.
YO
Yong 7 months ago
I remember practicing a similar question, but I’m not entirely sure if I should convert it to a percentage or just keep it as a decimal.
WH
Whitney 7 months ago
I think the failure rate is the inverse of MTBF, so it should be 1 divided by 200, which is 0.005, right?
0/2000 characters

Save Cancel