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AICPA CPA-Regulation Exam - Topic 3 Question 44 Discussion

Posted by Golda on May 09, 2022 at 10:34 AM

Greller owns 100 shares of Arden Corp., a publicly-traded company, which Greller purchased on January 1, 2001, for $10,000. On January 1, 2003, Arden declared a 2-for-1 stock split when the fair market value (FMV) of the stock was $120 per share. Immediately following the split, the FMV of Arden stock was $62 per share. On February 1, 2003, Greller had his broker specifically sell the 100 shares of Arden stock received in the split when the FMV of the stock was $65 per share. What is the basis of the 100 shares of Arden sold?

Suggested Answer: A

Choice 'a' is correct. The receipt of a nontaxable stock dividend will require the shareholder to spread the basis of his original share over both the original shares and the new shares received resulting in the same total basis, but a lower basis per share of stock held. Therefore, Greller total basis remains the same, $10,000, but is now split between 200 shares (a 2-for-1 split and he originally owned 100 shares).

Therefore, his basis per share goes from $100/share ($10,000/100) to $50/share ($10,000/200).

Consequently, his basis in 100 share is 100 x $50 = $5,000.

Choices 'b', 'c', and 'd' are incorrect per the above Explanation: .


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9 comments · newest first
CR
Cristal 11 months ago
Not sure about this one, feels a bit off to me.
LA
Lai 12 months ago
I thought it would be lower than that, but $6,000 seems right.
KA
Kanisha 12 months ago
Wait, how does the split affect the basis?
RO
Ronnie 12 months ago
Totally agree, $6,000 makes sense!
MA
Marisha 1 year ago
The basis after the split is $6,000.
IL
Ilona 1 year ago
I'm a little stuck on this one. The wording is a bit tricky. I might have to come back to it and see if I can figure it out after looking at some of the other questions.
DE
Desmond 1 year ago
Okay, let me think this through step-by-step. First, I need to determine if the database server IP is within the range of any of the new VPC subnets. If not, then the on-premises router not advertising a route for the database server is the most likely cause. If the IP is within a VPC subnet, then it's probably a routing issue, either the less specific or more specific route taking priority.
EL
Elvera 1 year ago
Okay, I think I've got it. The term for an OS running inside another OS is a "Guest" OS, so the answer must be D.
PA
Pamela 1 year ago
I'm a little confused by the wording of this question. What exactly is the difference between a 'prevent' control and a 'detect' control? I want to make sure I understand that before I select an answer. Maybe I'll quickly review my notes on internal controls.
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