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AICPA CPA-Regulation Exam - Topic 3 Question 44 Discussion
Topic #: 3
Greller owns 100 shares of Arden Corp., a publicly-traded company, which Greller purchased on January 1, 2001, for $10,000. On January 1, 2003, Arden declared a 2-for-1 stock split when the fair market value (FMV) of the stock was $120 per share. Immediately following the split, the FMV of Arden stock was $62 per share. On February 1, 2003, Greller had his broker specifically sell the 100 shares of Arden stock received in the split when the FMV of the stock was $65 per share. What is the basis of the 100 shares of Arden sold?
Choice 'a' is correct. The receipt of a nontaxable stock dividend will require the shareholder to spread the basis of his original share over both the original shares and the new shares received resulting in the same total basis, but a lower basis per share of stock held. Therefore, Greller total basis remains the same, $10,000, but is now split between 200 shares (a 2-for-1 split and he originally owned 100 shares).
Therefore, his basis per share goes from $100/share ($10,000/100) to $50/share ($10,000/200).
Consequently, his basis in 100 share is 100 x $50 = $5,000.
Choices 'b', 'c', and 'd' are incorrect per the above Explanation: .
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