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Versa Networks VNX100 Exam - Topic 1 Question 7 Discussion

Actual exam question for Versa Networks's VNX100 exam
Question #: 7
Topic #: 1
[All VNX100 Questions]

The administrator has to change the IP address of the Internet WAN link from DHCP to Static. The device template under Workflows has been updated with this change, but the change is not reflected in the branch device configuration.

In this scenario, which two steps should you take to solve this problem? (Choose two.)

Show Suggested Answer Hide Answer
Suggested Answer: B, C

Contribute your Thoughts:

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Yaeko
4 months ago
Surprised the change isn't automatic!
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Aleta
4 months ago
I thought A was the first step, but B makes sense too.
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Ma
4 months ago
Wait, is updating the controller really necessary?
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Tequila
4 months ago
Definitely B and C!
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Marica
4 months ago
Gotta commit the Device Template config to the appliance!
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Tamesha
5 months ago
I definitely remember updating the Device Bind Data being mentioned in a similar question, but I’m not sure if it’s the right step here.
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Verdell
5 months ago
I feel like updating the controller's configuration might be important, but I can't recall if it directly relates to the IP change.
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Theodora
5 months ago
I'm not entirely sure, but I remember something about committing the appliance configuration too. Maybe that’s also necessary?
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Selene
5 months ago
I think we need to commit the Device Template configuration to the appliance. That sounds familiar from our practice sessions.
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Eveline
5 months ago
Hmm, I'm a bit unsure about this one. The question is asking about specific Salesforce objects and configurations, which I'm not super familiar with. I'll need to review my notes and try to reason through the best solution.
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Oretha
5 months ago
Okay, let me think this through. The question is asking about the protocol that ensures immediate and on-demand policy resolution, so I'm guessing it's not something like STP or ISIS, which are more for routing and spanning tree. LLDP could be a possibility, but I'm leaning towards VXLAN as the best answer.
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Lino
5 months ago
Okay, I think I've got this. Since the transaction was credited to the right account but debited to the wrong one, that means the total debits and credits are still in balance. So it has to be an error of commission, not omission. I'm feeling good about this one.
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Rosio
5 months ago
Okay, I think I've got this. The key is understanding that loss assets should be written off, but if they are permitted to remain on the books, a certain percentage needs to be provided for. I'm going to go with option C - 100%.
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