Hmm, I'm not entirely convinced. Let me double-check the calculations. *scribbles on notepad* Ah, I see where the rounding error might come in. I think C is the correct answer.
Ah, I remember this from the lectures. The risk-neutral probability is calculated as (e^(rt) - d) / (u - d), where r is the risk-free rate, t is the time step, u is the up factor, and d is the down factor.
I agree, the key is understanding the risk-neutral probability formula and applying it correctly. Let's go through the steps together and see if we can arrive at the right answer.
Okay, let's think this through. We have the up and down factors, the risk-free rate, and the question is asking for the risk-neutral probability of an up move. This is going to require some formula manipulation to get the right answer.
Hmm, this is a tricky one. The binomial tree model is a core concept in options pricing, so I'm sure the exam writers are testing our understanding of the underlying assumptions and calculations.
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