Free ISC2 ISSEP Exam Dumps May 2026

System interface defines the system's external interfaces as well as the purpose of each external interface, and the relationship between the interface and the system.

Answer option D is incorrect. System hardware defines the target hardware and its function.

Answer option B is incorrect. System software defines the database management system, operating

system, and software applications, and how they will be used.

Answer option A is incorrect. System firmware defines the firmware stored permanently in a hardware device that allows reading and execution of the software, but not writing or transforming it.

The Secure Shell (SSH) protocol is used to establish a secure terminal to a remote network device.

Answer option A is incorrect. Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) is a security protocol for wireless local

area networks (WLANs). It has two components, authentication and encryption. It provides security,

which is equivalent to wired networks, for wireless networks. WEP encrypts data on a wireless

network by using a fixed secret key. WEP incorporates a checksum in each frame to provide

protection against the attacks that attempt to reveal the key stream.

Answer option D is incorrect. Internet Protocol Security (IPSec) is a method of securing data. It

secures traffic by using encryption and digital signing. It enhances the security of data as if an IPSec

packet is captured, its contents cannot be read. IPSec also provides sender verification that ensures

the certainty of the datagram's origin to the receiver.

Answer option B is incorrect. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is a protocol for sending e-mail

messages between servers. E-mailing systems use this protocol to send mails over the Internet.

SMTP works on the application layer of the TCP/IP or OSI reference model. The SMTP client typically

initiates a Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) connection to the SMTP server on the well-known

port designated for SMTP, port number 25. However, e-mail clients require POP or IMAP to retrieve

mails from e-mail servers.

The Common data security architecture (CDSA) is a set of layered security services and cryptographic framework. It deals with the communications and data security problems in the emerging Internet and intranet application space. It presents an infrastructure for building cross-platform,

interoperable, security-enabled applications for client-server environments.

Answer option D is incorrect. An application programming interface (API) is an interface

implemented by a software program which enables it to interact with other software. It facilitates

interaction between different software programs similar to the way the user interface facilitates

interaction between humans and computers. An API is implemented by applications, libraries, and

operating systems to determine their vocabularies and calling conventions, and is used to access

their services. It may include specifications for routines, data structures, object classes, and protocols used to communicate between the consumer and the implementer of the API. Answer option C is incorrect. File encrptors offer confidentiality and integrity for individual files. It gives a means of authenticating a ?le's source, and allows the exchange of encrypted files between computers.

Answer option A is incorrect. Internet Protocol Security (IPSec) is a method of securing data. It

secures traffic by using encryption and digital signing. It enhances the security of data as if an IPSec

packet is captured, its contents cannot be read. IPSec also provides sender verification that ensures the certainty of the datagram's origin to the receiver.

The Certification and Accreditation (C&A) process starts when an information system owner acknowledges that a system, group of systems, application, or site needs Accreditation. An information system owner might be an IT operations director, a security officer, or an IT operations manager. When the requirement for C&A is acknowledged, it is required to supervise the C&A process.

Answer option D is incorrect. A Chief Risk Officer (CRO) is also known as Chief Risk Management

Officer (CRMO). The Chief Risk Officer or Chief Risk Management Officer of a corporation is the

executive accountable for enabling the efficient and effective governance of significant risks, and

related opportunities, to a business and its various segments. Risks are commonly categorized as

strategic, reputational, operational, financial, or compliance-related. CRO's are accountable to the

Executive Committee and The Board for enabling the business to balance risk and reward. In more

complex organizations, they are generally responsible for coordinating the organization's Enterprise

Risk Management (ERM) approach.

Answer option C is incorrect. The Chief Information Officer (CIO), or Information Technology (IT)

director, is a job title commonly given to the most senior executive in an enterprise responsible for

the information technology and computer systems that support enterprise goals. The CIO plays the

role of a leader and reports to the chief executive officer, chief operations officer, or chief financial

officer. In military organizations, they report to the commanding officer.

Answer option A is incorrect. An Authorizing Official plays the role of an approver. The

responsibilities of an Authorizing Official are as follows:

Ascertains the security posture of the organization's information system.Reviews security status

reports and critical security documents.Determines the requirement of reauthorization and

reauthorizes information systems when required.

RTM is used to indicate that the software has met a defined quality level and is ready for mass

distribution either by electronic means or by physical media.

Answer option D is incorrect. The Designated Approving Authority (DAA), in the United States

Department of Defense, is the official with the authority to formally assume responsibility for

operating a system at an acceptable level of risk. The DAA is responsible for implementing system

security. The DAA can grant the accreditation and can determine that the system's risks are not at an

acceptable level and the system is not ready to be operational.

Answer option A is incorrect. Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) is a standardized digital data

transmission technology. Asynchronous Transfer Mode is a cell-based switching technique that uses

asynchronous time division multiplexing. It encodes data into small fixed-sized cells (cell relay) and

provides data link layer services that run over OSI Layer 1 physical links. This differs from other

technologies based on packet-switched networks (such as the Internet Protocol or Ethernet), in

which variable sized packets (known as frames when referencing Layer 2) are used. ATM exposes

properties from both circuit switched and small packet switched networking, making it suitable for

wide area data networking as well as real-time media transport. ATM uses a connection-oriented

model and establishes a virtual circuit between two endpoints before the actual data exchange

begins. It provides medium to high bandwidth and low latency and jitter.

Answer option C is incorrect. A Chief Risk Officer (CRO) is also known as Chief Risk Management

Officer (CRMO). The Chief Risk Officer or Chief Risk Management Officer of a corporation is the

executive accountable for enabling the efficient and effective governance of significant risks, and

related opportunities, to a business and its various segments. Risks are commonly categorized as

strategic, reputational, operational, financial, or compliance-related. CRO's are accountable to the

Executive Committee and The Board for enabling the business to balance risk and reward. In more

complex organizations, they are generally responsible for coordinating the organization's Enterprise

Risk Management (ERM) approach.

The Computer Fraud and Abuse Act is a law passed by the United States Congress in 1984 intended to reduce cracking of computer systems and to address federal computer-related offenses. The Computer Fraud and Abuse Act (codified as 18 U.S.C. 1030) governs cases with a compelling federal interest, where computers of the federal government or certain financial institutions are involved, where the crime itself is interstate in nature, or computers used in interstate and foreign commerce.

It was amended in 1986, 1994, 1996, in 2001 by the USA PATRIOT Act, and in 2008 by the Identity Theft Enforcement and Restitution Act. Section (b) of the act punishes anyone who not just commits or attempts to commit an offense under the Computer Fraud and Abuse Act but also those who conspire to do so.

Answer option A is incorrect. FISMA assigns specific responsibilities to federal agencies, the National

Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST), and the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) in

order to strengthen information system security. In particular, FISMA requires the head of each

agency to implement policies and procedures to cost-effectively reduce information technology

security risks to an acceptable level.

According to FISMA, the term information security means protecting information and information

systems from unauthorized access, use, disclosure, disruption, modification, or destruction in order

to provide integrity, confidentiality, and availability. Answer option C is incorrect. The Government

Information Security Reform Act (GISRA) addresses the information security program, evaluation,

and reporting requirements for federal agencies. The basic requirement of this law is that the

agencies should perform the periodic threat-based risk assessments for systems and data. GISRA

requires that the organizations should develop and execute risk-based, cost effective policies and

procedures to provide guidance for security planning and implementation. GISRA's essential

requisite is that the agencies should develop a process to guarantee that some corrective action has

taken place to address the deficiencies. It also emphasizes that the agencies should provide training

on security awareness and security responsibilities to agency personnel and information security

personnel. Answer option D is incorrect. The Computer Security Act was passed by the United States

Congress. It was passed to improve the security and privacy of sensitive information in Federal

computer systems and to establish a minimum acceptable security practices for such systems. It

requires the creation of computer security plans, and the appropriate training of system users or

owners where the systems house sensitive information.

A stateful packet filter firewall maintains context about active sessions, and uses that 'state information' to speed packet processing. It increases the security of data packets by remembering the state of connection at the network and the session layers as the packets pass through the filter.

Any existing network connection can be described by several properties, including source and destination IP address, UDP or TCP ports, and the current stage of the connection's lifetime (including session initiation, handshaking, data transfer, or completion connection). If a packet does not match an existing connection, it will be evaluated according to the ruleset for new connections.

If a packet matches an existing connection based on comparison with the firewall's state table, it will be allowed to pass without further processing. PF (Packet Filter, also written pf) is a BSD licensed

stateful packet filter, a central piece of software for firewalling. It is comparable to iptables, ipfw and

ipfilter. PF is developed on OpenBSD, but has been ported to many other operating systems.

Answer option A is incorrect. A stateless packet filter firewall separately analyses incoming packets

independently of the TCP connection or UDP data stream they belong to. It requires less memory,

and can be faster for simple filters that require less time to filter than to look up a session. It may

also be necessary for filtering stateless network protocols that have no concept of a session.

However, it cannot make more complex decisions based on what stage communications between

hosts have reached. It decides whether to allow a packet to traverse the firewall based on the

header of the packet, without regard to past traffic through the firewall.

Stateless IP filters are very inexpensive, and many are free. They are included with router

configuration software or are included with most Open Source operating systems.

Answer option B is incorrect. The PIX firewall is a Cisco product that performs VPN and firewall

functions. This product comes in different models according to the requirements. Cisco's PIX firewall

models such as PIX 501, 506 and 506E provide a firewall solution for small office environments. Cisco

PIX 515, 515E, 525, etc. are widely used in medium and large enterprises. These days Adaptive

Security Appliances (ASA) is used instead of PIX firewalls.

Answer option D is incorrect. A virtual firewall (VF) is a network firewall service or appliance running

entirely within a virtualized environment and which provides the usual packet filtering and

monitoring provided via a physical network firewall. The VF can be realized as a traditional software

firewall on a guest virtual machine already running, or it can be a purpose-built virtual security

appliance designed with virtual network security in mind, or it can be a virtual switch with additional

security capabilities, or it can be a managed kernel process running within the host hypervisor.