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GARP 2016-FRR Exam - Topic 4 Question 18 Discussion

Posted by Laila on Apr 10, 2026 at 02:30 AM

A retail credit score of above 680 is generally considered to be "prime." The term "prime" means the borrower is what?

Suggested Answer: D

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20 comments · newest first
CA
Callie 1 month ago
Agreed! High quality borrowers are less risky.
LA
Lashawnda 1 month ago
I feel confident about D. It's clear.
JE
Jesusa 2 months ago
Yeah, A sounds wrong. Low quality doesn't fit.
HA
Han 2 months ago
So, D is the right choice, right?
AD
Adell 2 months ago
Definitely! Low risk of default makes sense.
RE
Rene 2 months ago
I think "prime" means high quality.
AN
Annette 2 months ago
Yup, D is the correct answer!
NO
Norah 2 months ago
I thought prime was just for good credit, not risk levels.
LO
Lorean 3 months ago
Wait, are we sure about that? Sounds too good to be true.
NA
Nan 3 months ago
Definitely, it's high quality with low risk!
FA
Fatima 3 months ago
Prime means low risk, right?
SH
Shannon 3 months ago
Yup, D is the correct answer!
JE
Jerry 3 months ago
I thought prime was just for good credit, not risk levels.
AN
Annett 4 months ago
Wait, are we sure about that? Sounds too good to be true.
IZ
Izetta 5 months ago
Definitely, it's high quality with low risk!
ZA
Zachary 5 months ago
Prime means low risk, right?
FR
Francesco 6 months ago
I definitely recall that prime borrowers are high quality, which usually means they have a lower risk of default. So, D seems correct to me.
IO
Iola 6 months ago
I feel a bit confused. I thought "prime" meant low quality, but that doesn't sound right now.
CR
Cristen 6 months ago
I remember practicing a question like this, and I think "prime" borrowers are typically seen as low risk. So, I would go with D.
GL
Glenn 6 months ago
I think "prime" means the borrower is considered high quality, but I'm not sure if it's low risk of default or not.
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