I feel like B is the one that could be incorrect. The exposure at default being variable due to swap valuations makes sense, but I can't shake the feeling that there's something wrong with it.
I have a vague memory of dynamic collateral provisions increasing risk, but I'm not confident about that. D might be the incorrect one, but I need to think more about it.
I think I saw a similar question about exposure at default in practice exams. If I recall correctly, C seems off because exposure at default usually increases with higher probability of default.
Dynamic collateral provisions can actually increase counterparty risk? That's an interesting twist. I'll need to double-check my knowledge on that aspect.
Hmm, I'm a bit unsure about this one. I'll need to make sure I understand the key concepts around counterparty credit risk before attempting to answer.
I'm cracking up at the idea of 'dynamic collateral provisions' increasing counterparty risk. That's like saying 'fire extinguishers increase the risk of fire'.
Hmm, this is a tough one. I'm going to have to go with C. The exposure at default can be negatively correlated to probability of default. Sounds counterintuitive, but it makes sense if you think about it.
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