Which of the following protocol ports is used for secure remote access to a network device?
Port 22 is used by SSH (Secure Shell), which is the standard protocol for secure remote administration of network devices such as switches, routers, firewalls, and Linux-based systems. CompTIA A+ Core 1 emphasizes knowing common ports and selecting secure management methods. SSH provides encrypted communication for both authentication and the session data, protecting usernames, passwords, and command output from being intercepted by packet sniffers. This makes it the preferred choice over older remote access methods.
In contrast, port 23 is Telnet, which is also used for remote terminal access but sends traffic in cleartext, making it insecure and generally discouraged in modern environments. Port 21 is FTP control traffic, used for file transfers and typically not secure unless paired with FTPS or replaced by SFTP (which actually runs over SSH on port 22). Port 25 is SMTP, used for sending email between mail servers and is unrelated to remote device management. Therefore, for secure remote access to a network device, SSH on port 22 is the correct answer.
Which of the following devices forwards data between different networks by analyzing the headers of packets?
A router is a network device that forwards data between different networks by examining packet headers, specifically the IP address information contained in Layer 3 (Network Layer) of the OSI model. According to the CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) networking objectives, routers use routing tables and packet header analysis to determine the best path for data to travel from a source network to a destination network. When a packet arrives at a router interface, the router reads the destination IP address in the packet header, compares it against its routing table, and then forwards the packet to the appropriate next hop or network interface. This function allows routers to connect multiple networks such as LANs, WANs, and the internet.
The other options do not perform this function. A hub operates at Layer 1 (Physical Layer) and simply broadcasts incoming signals to all connected ports without inspecting any packet information. A repeater also operates at the physical layer and is used only to regenerate or amplify signals to extend network distance. An unmanaged switch operates mainly at Layer 2 (Data Link Layer) and forwards frames based on MAC addresses, not IP packet headers. Because only routers analyze packet headers and forward traffic between different networks, Router is the correct answer.
The power supply for a user's gaming computer fails. The user buys a replacement online. The user connects the power supply to the motherboard, the graphics card, and the SSDs, but the computer fails to start and displays a critical error. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
Modern motherboards require two separate power connections from the power supply: the 24-pin ATX connector for general motherboard power and a 4-pin or 8-pin CPU (EPS) connector dedicated to powering the processor. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) power supply installation and troubleshooting guidelines, failing to connect the CPU power connector commonly results in a system that does not boot and may display a critical or CPU-related error.
In this scenario, the user connected power to the motherboard, graphics card, and storage devices, but the system fails to start. This strongly indicates that the CPU power connector was overlooked, which is a frequent mistake during PSU replacement. Without this connection, the processor cannot initialize, preventing POST.
Insufficient wattage typically causes instability, shutdowns, or reboots under load rather than immediate failure with a critical error. RAM upgrades are unrelated to PSU replacement, and redundant power supplies are used in enterprise systems, not standard gaming PCs.
CompTIA emphasizes verifying all required PSU connectors, especially the CPU power connector, as a critical troubleshooting step when a system will not power on after a PSU replacement.
A local bank is designing its new infrastructure blueprint. Which of the following RAID types offers double parity?
RAID 6 is the RAID level that provides double parity, allowing the system to tolerate the failure of two disks simultaneously without data loss. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) storage and RAID objectives, RAID 6 improves fault tolerance by storing two independent parity blocks across all disks in the array.
RAID 0 provides no parity or redundancy and focuses only on performance through striping. RAID 1 uses mirroring, duplicating data across two drives but does not use parity. RAID 5 uses single parity, allowing recovery from only one failed drive.
For environments such as a local bank, where data integrity and availability are critical, RAID 6 is commonly preferred due to its higher fault tolerance compared to RAID 5. Although RAID 6 has slightly lower write performance due to the additional parity calculation, the increased resilience makes it suitable for mission-critical systems.
CompTIA highlights RAID 6 as a common enterprise solution when both redundancy and reliability are priorities.
A technician is troubleshooting a workstation that repeatedly shuts down within ten minutes of being turned on. The technician notices a loud clicking sound coming from inside the case. Which of the following components should the technician check first?
A failing CPU fan may make unusual noises (including clicking) and, if it is not cooling the CPU, the system will quickly overheat and shut down to prevent damage.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 4.1 -- Troubleshooting hardware problems:
''Overheating due to a failed or obstructed CPU fan can cause frequent shutdowns. Loud noises are a sign the fan should be checked first.''
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 4: PC Hardware Troubleshooting
CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 4.1
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