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Citrix Exam 1Y0-241 Topic 7 Question 103 Discussion

Actual exam question for Citrix's 1Y0-241 exam
Question #: 103
Topic #: 7
[All 1Y0-241 Questions]

Scenario: A Citrix ADC is configured with Interface 1/1 and bound to VLAN 40. A Citrix Administrator executed the below command:

> bind vlan 10 --ifnum 1/1

What is the result of executing this command on the Citrix ADC?

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Contribute your Thoughts:

Bulah
3 days ago
I remember a similar question where binding a new VLAN didn't change the native VLAN. Could it be option B?
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Ligia
9 days ago
I think the command changes the VLAN binding, but I'm not sure if it affects the native VLAN.
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Virgina
14 days ago
I'm pretty confident that the answer is C. The interface is bound to VLAN 20, but the native VLAN remains 40 since that's how it was originally configured.
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Eulah
20 days ago
Okay, I think I've got this. The key is that the interface was already bound to VLAN 40, and then the command binds it to VLAN 10. So the native VLAN should still be 40.
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Janine
25 days ago
Hmm, I'm a bit confused by the scenario. Let me re-read the question and the options to make sure I understand what's happening with the VLAN binding.
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Merissa
1 months ago
This is a tricky one. I'll need to think through the VLAN binding process carefully to figure out the right answer.
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Ryan
1 months ago
Hmm, I'm not sure. I'll have to double-check the Citrix ADC documentation to be certain.
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Nobuko
1 months ago
I believe the correct answer is B) Interface 1/1 is bound to VLAN 20, and native VLAN is NOT changed, based on the command provided.
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Pamela
2 months ago
I agree with Lashanda, because the command only binds the interface to a different VLAN, it doesn't change the native VLAN.
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Lashanda
3 months ago
I think the result is Interface 1/1 is bound to VLAN 20, and native VLAN is NOT changed.
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Elroy
3 months ago
I think the correct answer is C. The interface is bound to VLAN 20, but the native VLAN remains at 40 since that was the original configuration.
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