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Cisco 200-201 Exam - Topic 3 Question 6 Discussion

Posted by Daniel on May 07, 2022 at 10:37 PM

An analyst received an alert on their desktop computer showing that an attack was successful on the host.

After investigating, the analyst discovered that no mitigation action occurred during the attack. What is the

reason for this discrepancy?

Suggested Answer: C

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9 comments · newest first
SC
Scot 12 months ago
Are we sure it wasn't just a misconfiguration?
GL
Gladis 12 months ago
I agree, HIPS wouldn't let that slide.
LE
Leota 1 year ago
Surprised that no mitigation happened at all!
LA
Latrice 1 year ago
Nah, it could be a NIPS problem too.
HA
Harley 1 year ago
I think it's definitely a HIDS issue.
AN
Annalee 1 year ago
Okay, let me think this through. The key is that the gateway address is the same across the data center and disaster recovery site. That suggests I need a solution that can maintain Layer 3 connectivity during the migration. VXLAN EVPN sounds like the right approach.
BR
Breana 1 year ago
Hmm, I'm a bit unsure about this one. The options seem similar, and I'm not entirely confident in my knowledge of document classification procedures. I'll have to think this through carefully.
FR
Francene 1 year ago
This seems like a straightforward question about setting up an automated deployment pipeline. I think I'll go with option B - using Cloud Pub/Sub to trigger a Spinnaker pipeline. That way, I can leverage Spinnaker's robust deployment capabilities while keeping the integration with GCR simple.
MA
Margery 1 year ago
I'm a little confused by this question. I know we covered transfer pricing in class, but I can't quite remember the exact definition. I'll have to think it through step-by-step.
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