I'm a bit unsure about B; I remember something about employers needing to cover shortfalls, but I thought that was more typical of defined benefit schemes.
I'm pretty confident that A is the right answer here. The defined contribution scheme puts the investment risk on the employees, so the benefits they receive depend on how well the investments do.
Okay, I've got it now. The key characteristic of a defined contribution scheme is that the benefits paid out are based on the investment performance, not a predefined formula. So A is the correct answer.
Hmm, I'm a bit confused on this one. I'll need to think it through carefully to make sure I understand the differences between the defined contribution and defined benefit schemes.
I think the answer is A. The amount of the post-employment benefits paid to former employees depends on how well the scheme's investments have performed.
B seems like the most logical choice to me. The employer has to step in if the funds are insufficient. I'd rather not depend on the whims of the stock market, thank you very much.
B seems like the most logical choice to me. The employer has to step in if the funds are insufficient. I'd rather not depend on the whims of the stock market, thank you very much.
B) The employer would make additional contributions into the scheme if the actuary predicted a shortfall in the funds available to pay post-employment benefits.
Ha! D is clearly the funniest option. The employer can just take a 'contributions holiday' if the assets are sufficient. Like a paid vacation, but for the company!
I think the correct answer is A) The amount of the post-employment benefits paid to former employees depends on how well the scheme's investments have performed.
I think the correct answer is A) The amount of the post-employment benefits paid to former employees depends on how well the scheme's investments have performed.
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