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APICS Exam CPIM-8.0 Topic 1 Question 9 Discussion

Actual exam question for APICS's CPIM-8.0 exam
Question #: 9
Topic #: 1
[All CPIM-8.0 Questions]

If the total part failure rate of a machine is 0.00055 failures per hour, what would be the mean time between failures (MTBF) in hours?

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Suggested Answer: A

The mean time between failures (MTBF) is the inverse of the failure rate. The failure rate is given as 0.00055 failures per hour, so the MTBF is 1/0.00055 = 1,818.2 hours. This means that the average time the machine operates without failing is 1,818.2 hours. Reference: MTBF Formula | How to Calculate Mean Time Between Failure? - EDUCBA, Mean time between failures - Wikipedia


by Evangelina at May 04, 2025, 04:53 AM

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Aliza
21 days ago
I'm going with B) 59.99945. It just has a nice, precise feel to it. This exam is all about the details, am I right?
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Karl
26 days ago
A) 1,818.2 seems like the right answer. I mean, if the failure rate is super low, the mean time between failures has to be pretty high, right?
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Donte
23 hours ago
C) Yeah, it makes sense that the mean time between failures would be high with a low failure rate like that.
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Grover
3 days ago
B) I think you're right. A high mean time between failures would make sense with such a low failure rate.
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Jerlene
13 days ago
A) 1,818.2 seems like the right answer. I mean, if the failure rate is super low, the mean time between failures has to be pretty high, right?
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