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APICS CPIM-8.0 Exam - Topic 1 Question 9 Discussion

Actual exam question for APICS's CPIM-8.0 exam
Question #: 9
Topic #: 1
[All CPIM-8.0 Questions]

If the total part failure rate of a machine is 0.00055 failures per hour, what would be the mean time between failures (MTBF) in hours?

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Suggested Answer: A

The mean time between failures (MTBF) is the inverse of the failure rate. The failure rate is given as 0.00055 failures per hour, so the MTBF is 1/0.00055 = 1,818.2 hours. This means that the average time the machine operates without failing is 1,818.2 hours. Reference: MTBF Formula | How to Calculate Mean Time Between Failure? - EDUCBA, Mean time between failures - Wikipedia


by Evangelina at May 04, 2025, 04:53 AM

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Dulce
4 months ago
Totally agree with A, solid math there!
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Yvette
5 months ago
Definitely A, that makes sense!
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Josefa
5 months ago
MTBF is calculated as 1 divided by the failure rate.
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Troy
5 months ago
Are we sure about that? Feels off to me.
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Rueben
5 months ago
Wait, 1,818.2 hours? That seems way too high.
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Bernardine
5 months ago
I think the correct answer is A, but I’m not completely confident. I need to double-check my math!
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Lilli
6 months ago
I feel like the answer should be a larger number since it's MTBF, but I’m second-guessing my calculations.
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Emogene
6 months ago
I think I practiced a similar question where we had to find MTBF from a failure rate. I’ll try to remember the formula!
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Art
6 months ago
I remember MTBF is the inverse of the failure rate, but I’m not sure how to calculate it exactly.
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Kimberely
6 months ago
I think I've got it - the MTBF is just the reciprocal of the failure rate, so the answer should be 1/0.00055.
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Alyssa
7 months ago
Wait, is the failure rate given per hour or per some other time period? I need to make sure I'm using the right units.
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Raymon
7 months ago
Okay, I know the MTBF is the inverse of the failure rate, so this should be a simple division problem.
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Quentin
7 months ago
Hmm, I'm a bit unsure about the formula to use here. Let me think this through step-by-step.
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Allene
7 months ago
This looks like a straightforward calculation, I should be able to handle this.
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Antonio
11 months ago
A) 1,818.2 hours? Wow, that machine must be built like a tank! I wonder if they use it to power a small country or something. Either way, it's got to be the answer.
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Ernest
9 months ago
D) 0.99945
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Patti
9 months ago
C) 1.98
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Lottie
10 months ago
B) 59.99945
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Pok
10 months ago
A) 1,818.2 hours? Wow, that machine must be built like a tank! I wonder if they use it to power a small country or something. Either way, it's got to be the answer.
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Leandro
11 months ago
I agree with Terry, A) 1,818.2 makes sense based on the formula
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Goldie
11 months ago
C) 1.98 hours? Really? That can't be right. I'd be surprised if the machine lasted that long without having a meltdown. Time to go back to the drawing board on this one.
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Theola
10 months ago
B) 59.99945 could also be a possible MTBF value for the machine.
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Zana
10 months ago
A) 1,818.2 seems more reasonable for the MTBF of the machine.
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Shanda
10 months ago
C) I agree, 1.98 hours seems too short for the mean time between failures.
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Leatha
10 months ago
D) 0.99945
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Roosevelt
10 months ago
C) 1.98
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Quentin
10 months ago
B) 59.99945
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Raina
11 months ago
A) 1,818.2
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Terry
11 months ago
But the MTBF is calculated as 1 divided by the failure rate, so it should be A)
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Blythe
11 months ago
Hmm, D) 0.99945 is a bit too low, don't you think? I bet the machines would be breaking down every hour if that were the case. Better go with something more reasonable.
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Farrah
10 months ago
C) 1.98
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Vinnie
11 months ago
A) 1,818.2
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Corinne
11 months ago
I disagree, I believe the answer is B) 59.99945
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Terry
11 months ago
I think the answer is A) 1,818.2
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Aliza
12 months ago
I'm going with B) 59.99945. It just has a nice, precise feel to it. This exam is all about the details, am I right?
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Shannan
11 months ago
I agree with you, B) 59.99945 seems like the most precise option.
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Lynelle
11 months ago
I'm not sure, but I'm leaning towards C) 1.98.
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Catarina
11 months ago
I think A) 1,818.2 is the correct answer.
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Karl
1 year ago
A) 1,818.2 seems like the right answer. I mean, if the failure rate is super low, the mean time between failures has to be pretty high, right?
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Donte
11 months ago
C) Yeah, it makes sense that the mean time between failures would be high with a low failure rate like that.
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Grover
11 months ago
B) I think you're right. A high mean time between failures would make sense with such a low failure rate.
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Jerlene
12 months ago
A) 1,818.2 seems like the right answer. I mean, if the failure rate is super low, the mean time between failures has to be pretty high, right?
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