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APICS Exam CPIM-8.0 Topic 1 Question 9 Discussion

Actual exam question for APICS's CPIM-8.0 exam
Question #: 9
Topic #: 1
[All CPIM-8.0 Questions]

If the total part failure rate of a machine is 0.00055 failures per hour, what would be the mean time between failures (MTBF) in hours?

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Suggested Answer: A

The mean time between failures (MTBF) is the inverse of the failure rate. The failure rate is given as 0.00055 failures per hour, so the MTBF is 1/0.00055 = 1,818.2 hours. This means that the average time the machine operates without failing is 1,818.2 hours. Reference: MTBF Formula | How to Calculate Mean Time Between Failure? - EDUCBA, Mean time between failures - Wikipedia


by Evangelina at May 04, 2025, 04:53 AM

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Antonio
29 days ago
A) 1,818.2 hours? Wow, that machine must be built like a tank! I wonder if they use it to power a small country or something. Either way, it's got to be the answer.
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Lottie
7 days ago
B) 59.99945
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Pok
8 days ago
A) 1,818.2 hours? Wow, that machine must be built like a tank! I wonder if they use it to power a small country or something. Either way, it's got to be the answer.
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Leandro
1 months ago
I agree with Terry, A) 1,818.2 makes sense based on the formula
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Goldie
1 months ago
C) 1.98 hours? Really? That can't be right. I'd be surprised if the machine lasted that long without having a meltdown. Time to go back to the drawing board on this one.
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Theola
21 hours ago
B) 59.99945 could also be a possible MTBF value for the machine.
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Zana
2 days ago
A) 1,818.2 seems more reasonable for the MTBF of the machine.
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Shanda
3 days ago
C) I agree, 1.98 hours seems too short for the mean time between failures.
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Leatha
4 days ago
D) 0.99945
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Roosevelt
6 days ago
C) 1.98
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Quentin
7 days ago
B) 59.99945
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Raina
30 days ago
A) 1,818.2
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Terry
1 months ago
But the MTBF is calculated as 1 divided by the failure rate, so it should be A)
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Blythe
1 months ago
Hmm, D) 0.99945 is a bit too low, don't you think? I bet the machines would be breaking down every hour if that were the case. Better go with something more reasonable.
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Farrah
24 days ago
C) 1.98
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Vinnie
1 months ago
A) 1,818.2
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Corinne
1 months ago
I disagree, I believe the answer is B) 59.99945
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Terry
2 months ago
I think the answer is A) 1,818.2
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Aliza
2 months ago
I'm going with B) 59.99945. It just has a nice, precise feel to it. This exam is all about the details, am I right?
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Shannan
28 days ago
I agree with you, B) 59.99945 seems like the most precise option.
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Lynelle
1 months ago
I'm not sure, but I'm leaning towards C) 1.98.
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Catarina
1 months ago
I think A) 1,818.2 is the correct answer.
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Karl
2 months ago
A) 1,818.2 seems like the right answer. I mean, if the failure rate is super low, the mean time between failures has to be pretty high, right?
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Donte
2 months ago
C) Yeah, it makes sense that the mean time between failures would be high with a low failure rate like that.
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Grover
2 months ago
B) I think you're right. A high mean time between failures would make sense with such a low failure rate.
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Jerlene
2 months ago
A) 1,818.2 seems like the right answer. I mean, if the failure rate is super low, the mean time between failures has to be pretty high, right?
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